[ntp:questions] Windows Time with NTPv4
malayter at gmail.com
Mon Mar 24 02:57:17 UTC 2008
On Mar 22, 10:38 pm, ma... at ntp.isc.org (Danny Mayer) wrote:
> > I've been going under the assumption that anyhthing with NTPv3, mode
> > 1, and precision -6 is a w32time system not configured with the 0x8
> > client mode identifier.
> > Couldn't one also assume that any system which sends a mode-1 packet
> > to an ntpd server and is not explicitly identified with a "peer"
> > directive should recieve a server-mode reply?
I believe what I wrote was unclear; I meant that when ALL of the
conditions I mentioned in both paragraphs are satisfied, we should not
mobilize a symmetric association.
That is, when a packet is received that is:
2) has precision -6
3) is mode 1 (symmetric active)
4) and is not from an explicitly configured peer
...we assume it is from a mis-configured w32time system, and mobilize
a transient association and send a server-mode reply instead of a
symmetric passive association.
Is this what the "windows hack" code already does? What criteria does
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